If God is the same yesterday, today, and forever, which the Bible states in Hebrews 13:8, then why would He write the Bible differently than the Book of Mormon? The Bible was written over hundreds of years by a multitude of different authors and then compiled and canonized. Why would He change that delivery to an angel delivering plates to a boy who translates the entire scripture?
Why would God hide the true testament of Christ for years then deliver it to some European? Even if it was waiting for America, then why wasn't it delivered even a hundred years earlier?
3 Nephi 7:27 in the Book of Mormon states, "That these sayings which ye shall write shall be kept and shalt be manifested unto the Gentiles, That through the fulness of the Gentiles, the remnant of their seed-which shall be scattered forth upon the face of the earth because of their unbelief-may be brought in, or may be brought to a knowledge of Me, their Redeemer." The issue with that is that if that was being done with the Book of Mormon then how come God sent the Bible out which was easily accessible to gentiles over a thousand years earlier? And why would God wait over a thousand years for the gentile Joseph Smith? Gentiles were plenty before that.
If you look at the point that the Bible was already available, how does the Book of Mormon bring the knowledge of the redeemer? It doesn't, the gentiles already had the knowledge of Christ. Unless the Book of Mormon speaks of a different Christ than the one in the Bible?
One more thing:
Galatians 1:6-9 (KJV) - "I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel: Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ. But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel than that we have preached unto you, let him be accursed. As we said before, so say I now again, if any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.
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